When a child is brought up in a Christian home, and attends church every week, reads the Bible, goes to Sunday school, memorizes Scriptue, has learned Biblical Doctrine, etc, and is not yet baptized because the parents of the child feel that the child does not yet “intellectually understand” what baptism means, or understand what it means to be a Christian, is this helping or hindering that child from coming to Christ?
Is this unbaptized child who has been brought up in the church a memeber of the church?
If the child has to attain a certain intellectual level of understanding before being baptized, is this intellectual attainment a form of works?
Is it unbiblical and/or unethical to raise a child in a Christian home, under christian rules, expecting that child to follow and obey those rules, and for that child to go under the proper Christian disicipline due to disobedience, and yet to consider that child to not be a christian and to not be in covenant with God because of their lack of baptism? Is that wrong?
If we are all equal in Christ, then isn’t the unbaptized child considered an unequal due to their lack of baptism, since he is not ye a “christian”? Does this make this child some sort of second class citizen?
Did Jesus tell the children He blessed that they had to wait until they were a certain age or were able to attain to some intellectual understanding before they could come to Him?
What were the requirements that needed to be met that Jesus laid down for the children before the kingdom of God could be belong those little children?
Just a few questions.
Oh, one more question….
If the New Covenant is made ONLY with true believers, then how is it that in Hebrews 10:26-30 ,that a person could “receive the knowledge of the truth”, and by their deliberate sinning, “profane the blood of the Covenant by which he was Sanctified“, and subsequently in verse 30 have the author say that this person who will be judged is to be considered “HIS (God’s) PEOPLE”?????
This person received the truth, was in covenant with God, was sancitified by the blood of the (new) covenant, was considered to be God’s people, and yet can still “spurn the son of God, and profane the blood of the Covenant by which he was sanctified, and could outrage the Spirit of Grace”? This person will subsequently be judged by a fury of fire that will consume God’s adversaries (which this person is). If the New Covenant is only made with those who are regenerate then how could Hebrews 10:26-30 make any sense?????